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February 12, 2009

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Colin Henderson

Interesting graph,but there is more to the story.

Liquidity is a symptom of that bankers problem. Ask him why he is illiquid?

Liquidity simply means to invest less assets in loans and mortgages. That is a choice made by the bank to make revenue. If they do not, then the market kills them for having underutilised their assets.

Then if we dig deeper the lack of capital at the bank means they have to fund their assets with relatively expensive (compared to capital) customer deposits. So no choice they must deploy as assets, ie loans and mortgages to make money.

Banks are under capitalised, and overtrading - thats what produces the symptom descibe d above imho.

Chris Skinner

True Colin,

And useful additional insight as what we're illustrating is the strain of the banks that are getting TARP and UK funding I believe ...

Chris

Phil Cantor

The bogeyman's £100bn vanishing trick - I've only just spotted this lovely graph but the interesting bit to me is the systemic view. Let's say the "£Bn's" in Chris's graph is £10bn, so this typical bank starts out with £10bn and ends the day with £10bn but sinks intraday to £almost-none-bn before rising again, just in the nick of time. Now suppose there are ten banks all with this same, typical profile. The central bank (if it could get the data and by golly it is trying) will see £100bn vanish during the day only to reappear at the end of the day! Where has all the money gone?

Of course, most of the money moves from one bank to another rather than being illiquidated, so probably the total liquid assets are still around somewhere in transit (in queues) - we hope. So how do we know whether to (over)react to the bogeyman £100bn vanishing trick?

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